Counting strokes

Hi people,
I read an article in an old magazine of shorthand in Spanish, and it’s mentioned that the X system uses 10% less of strokes than the Y system.
Does anyone know how to count strokes?
For example, in the picture I post:  you can see in that “mister” in Gregg and “neck” in Pitman, both use two strokes; but, what about “selection”? Could it be 3 strokes for Gregg, and 1 and 1/2 for Pitman?

(by valo1969 for everyone)

6 comments Add yours
  1. Maybe what I would like to know is related with hand movements. Because, (for example) I can write "selection" in Pitman quickier than in Gregg; but "development" is easier (smoother and quickier) in Gregg, than in Pitman.   V짧L쨘

  2. VALO

    From the viewpoint of a Pitman writer, "selection" contains two strokes with two appendages. 2 + 2 (1/2)= 3. That's if you count an appendage as one half of a stroke.

    By the way, do tell–how is "development" written in Gregg? (I already know the Pitman answer)

  3. By strokes we usually mean the number of characters, unless the characters are blended.  Examples:   1. selection has 5: s, e, l, e, and the blend k-sh 2. mister has 2: m, r 3. depend has 2: d, and the blend pnd 4. frame has 3: the blend fr, a, and m 5. brand has 3: the blend br, a, and nd   At least that's how I

  4. I found in "anything goes" section, a discusion about Cross shorthand system, and a comparison chart with the Lord's prayer written in Pitman and Pocknell, where it's used the word "INFLECTION". Maybe, that's the right word I should use.



  5. VALO:

    I'm an aspiring Pitman writer who, as strange as it might seem, can read most of that Pitman passage! It's written in old Pitman, though; some of the strokes have changed, and some short forms aren't in common use. It's like trying to read a passage in Chaucer's English.

    But I counted the "inflections", and for the life of me, I cannot see how he came up with 118. I only came up with 86, and that's including all the hooks and circles. I don't know if he counted halving a stroke; if he did, I think that's very unfair–how could halving a stroke be two inflections, while an ordinary stroke remain just one? (For you Gregg-ites, it's like counting the "m" stroke as one, and the "n" stroke as two! illogical)

    I suspect that Pocknell wrote this comparison himself as a sales pitch. Businesses never change, do they?

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