Salesman / Salesmen

Quick question:

In section 165 in the (FIRST Edition) Simplified FM manual I don’t understand why they write “salesmen” using the men-blend but farther down they spell “salesman” out (not using a man-blend). In section #167 (of the SECOND Edition) it appears that the sound man would be a blend, too. Is there a simple explanation?

See link to example:

4 comments Add yours
  1. The first outline occurs as part of: "…but we-have-not-been-able to-get the salesmen we-need for-that territory."

    They're talking about recruiting a workforce for their new factory.

    The next outline: "You mentioned one day that your son has always hoped to-become a salesman…"

    The first is plural = m-n blend. The second is singular an needs m-a-n.


    See why I said "always read in context"? This is also why I have such trouble with recall charts. If I can't see how a word is being used, then I have a hard time recalling it.

  2. Yes. Basically the question is why "salesman" is spelled out, but "manage" is written with the blend. We always use the blend for man-, except if -man is used as a suffix referring to occupation (salesman, fireman, etc.), because we need to distinguish it from -men when used in those same occupation words (salesmen, firemen, etc.), as -men is always blended. There are other cases in which we spell out man- (m-a-n):

    (1) in the ending -mand written as m-a-n
    (2) in the word "man" and its derivatives (manlike, manhood, etc.)
    (3) if man- is followed by a hard g, we don't blend and use the ng instead ("mango" = m-a-ng-o)
    (4) if the a is a long a, as in "mania" (m-a-n-ia). However the derivatives of "mania" are blended (maniacal)
    (5) short words like manna

    Lastly, proper names that end in -man (such as Hoffman, etc.) are blended.

    Hope this helps.

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